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--- bible-study:matthew:matthew-004 [2026/02/10 17:35] – [Could the devil have delivered on his promise "all these I will give you"?] kbieb
+++ bible-study:matthew:matthew-004 [2026/02/13 10:56] (current) – [Matthew Chapter 4] kbieb
@@ Line 1: / Line 1: @@
 [[..:index|Bible Study Index]] | [[matthew|Matthew]]
 ====== Matthew Chapter 4 ======
-[[https://netbible.org/bible/Matthew+1|NET Bible]] | [[https://enduringword.com/bible-commentary/matthew-1/|Enduring Word Commentary]]
+[[https://netbible.org/bible/Matthew+4|NET Bible]] | [[https://enduringword.com/bible-commentary/matthew-4/|Enduring Word Commentary]]
 ===== The Temptation of Jesus (1 - 11) =====
 ==== Who led Jesus to be tempted? Why is this important? ====
 The Holy Spirit did, not the devil. Therefore this testing was of God's doing, not the devil's.
 ==== Does God then lead us into temptation? ====
-God doesn't tempt us to do evil but He may orchestrate periods of trial and tribulation to test our character. This is not necessarily to prove anything to God but rather to prove something to ourselves and anyone watching us, including spiritual beings.
+No, [[https://netbible.org/bible/James+1|James 1:13]] says "Let no one say when he is tempted, “I am tempted by God,” for God cannot be tempted by evil, and he himself tempts no one." While God doesn't tempt us to do evil, He may orchestrate periods of trial and tribulation to test or mold our character. Testing is not to prove anything to God but rather to prove something to ourselves and anyone watching us, including spiritual beings. Molding our character is arguably the whole point of "why we are here".
 ==== Why did Jesus need to be tempted? Didn't He already experience temptation just by being fully man? ====
 Jesus needed to be tempted in order to allow Him to identify with humans who are under constant temptation. He did experience temptation by being fully man (needs references). Perhaps He was tempted to demonstrate His holy and sinless character.
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 It shows that the devil can quote scripture, in this case Psalm 91, for his own nefarious purposes.
 ==== Could the devil have delivered on his promise "all these I will give you"? ====
-No, even though the devil is said to be the ruler of this world ([[https://netbible.org/bible/John+12 | John 12:31 ]], [[https://netbible.org/bible/John+12 | John 14:30 ]], [[https://netbible.org/bible/John+16 | John 16:11 ]], [[https://netbible.org/bible/2+Corinthians+4 | 2 Cor 4:4 ]], [[https://netbible.org/bible/Ephesians+2 | Eph 2:2 ]]), he is more like a squatter with a lot of influence rather than the landlord. Ultimately, all authority belongs to God.
+No, even though the devil is said to be the ruler of this world ([[https://netbible.org/bible/John+12|John 12:31 ]], [[https://netbible.org/bible/John+12|John 14:30 ]], [[https://netbible.org/bible/John+16|John 16:11 ]], [[https://netbible.org/bible/2+Corinthians+4|2 Cor 4:4]], [[https://netbible.org/bible/Ephesians+2|Eph 2:2 ]]), he is more like a squatter with a lot of influence rather than the landlord. Ultimately, all authority belongs to God.
 ==== What was the end result of the temptation? What is the importance of this? ====
 Jesus resisted Satan's temptations and demonstrated that the way to win in spiritual warfare is with consistent meaningful use of the Scriptures. [[https://netbible.org/bible/Ephesians+6|Ephesians 6:17]] says "And take the helmet of salvation and the sword of the Spirit (which is the word of God)."
 ===== Ministry in Galilee (12 - 17) =====
 ==== How long was Jesus's ministry? ====
-It is traditionally thought to have been three years, one in obscurity, one of popularity and one of increasing rejection.
+It is traditionally thought to have been three years, one in obscurity, one of popularity and one of increasing rejection. The first year was covered the most extensively in [[https://netbible.org/bible/John+1|John 1-4]]. [[https://netbible.org/bible/Luke+4|Luke 4:16]] covers Jesus's rejection in His hometown of Nazareth.
+==== Where else have we heard "Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is near!"? ====
+John the Baptist also says this in [[https://netbible.org/bible/Matthew+3|Matthew 3:2]].
 ===== The First Disciples (18 - 22) =====
+==== Why would these fisherman just leave their jobs and follow Jesus? ====
+It could be that there was some divine influence involved, but I don't like that explanation because it has freewill ramifications. I believe God wants only willing followers, a supernatural coercion would be in conflict with that. It's very possible they already knew of Him since He may have been preaching and performing miracles in Galilee for some time at this point. The other Gospels also add some detail. [[https://netbible.org/bible/Luke+5:Luke 5:1-11]] talks about the great catch that Jesus caused. [[https://netbible.org/bible/John+1|John 1:35-42]] explains that Andrew was a disciple of John the Baptist and heard about Jesus, the "Lamb of God", from him.
+One of my commentaries (ESV Study Bible) claims that Andrew and Simon and possibly James and John had already been disciples of Jesus for about a year before this event in Matthew, but had returned to their trades for a period. It references[[https://netbible.org/bible/John+1|John 1:35-42]] to reach this conclusion. This is possible because this event in Matthew occurs after John the Baptist was arrested ([[https://netbible.org/bible/Matthew+4|Matthew 4:12]]), John 3:22 says that Jesus **and His disciples** were baptizing before John was thrown in prison ([[https://netbible.org/bible/John+3|John 3:22-24]]).
+Peter, James and John will become Jesus's inner circle among the twelve disciples.
+==== What does "fishers of men" mean? ====
+I think this metaphor is pretty clear. It simply means that they would catch men for God by preaching and living a spiritual life. There is a similar fishermen metaphor in [[https://netbible.org/bible/Jeremiah+16|Jeremiah 16:16]] that talks of catching evil people like fishermen.
 ===== Teaching, Preaching and Healing (23 - 25) =====
+==== What is significant about the list of conditions that Jesus was healing? ====
+The text lists "those how had seizures(epileptics)" and "those possessed by demons" as separate afflictions. It shows that the people of the time were able to differentiate between the two conditions. A common argument of materialists who don't believe in demons is that when the Bible talks about the demon-possessed, they are really talking about people with seizures. This passage proves that was not the case.